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Chapter: 12th Botany : Competitive Examination Questions

Biotechnology - Competitive Examination Questions

Botany : Competitive Examination Questions

UNIT VIII – Biotechnology


1. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.

b) Positively charged fragments move to farther end.

c) Negatively charged fragments do not move.

d) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.


2. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for

a) Purification of product.

b) Addition of preservatives to the product

c) Availability of oxygen throughout the process

d) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel.


3. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

a) Separation

b) Purification

c) Preservation

d) Expression


4. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?

a) Transferable

b) Single-stranded

c) Independent replication

d) Circular structure


5. Which of the following is not required for nay of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?

a) Restriction enzymes

b) DNA-DNA hybridization

c) Polymerase chain reaction

d) Zinc finger analysis


6. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?

a) Bacterial artificial chromosome

b) Yeast artificial chromosome

c) Plasmid

d) Cosmid


7. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of

a) Insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in recombinant bacteria.

b) nactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria.

c) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta galactosidase.

d) Insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria.


8. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to

a) Precipitate DNA

b) Break open the cell to release DNA

c) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes

d) Remove proteins such as histones.


9. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of

a) Silver or platinum

b) Platinum or zinc

c) Silicon or platinum

d) Gold or tungsten.


10. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

a) disarming pathogen vectors

b) transformation of plant cells

c) constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

d) DNA fingerprinting.


11. Genetic engineering is possible because

a) phenomenon of transduction in bacteria understood

b) we can see DNA by electron microscope

c) we can cut DNA at specific sites by endonuclease like DNAase I

d) restriction endonuclease purified from bacteria can be used invitro


12. Genetic Engineering is

a) Making artificial genes

b) Hybridisation of DNA of one organism to that of the others

c) Production of alcohol by using microorganisms

d) Making artificial limbs, diagnostic instruments such as ECG, EFG, etc.


13. Ligase is used for

a) Joining of two DNA fragments

b) Separating DNA

c) DNA polymerase reaction

d) All of these


14. In genetic engineering, gene of interest is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (1-4) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as vectors

1. A bacterium 2. Plasmid 3. Plasmodium 4. Bacteriophage

a) 1 and 4 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1 only

d) 1 and 3 only


15. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?

5’---GAATTC---3’ 3’---CTTAAG---5’

a) Palindromic sequence of base pairs

b) Replication completed

c) Deletion mutation

d) Start codon at the 5’end


16. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for ?

a) Coelom

b) Colon

c) Coli

d) Coenzyme


17. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the vector pBR322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain components?

a) Ori-original restriction enzyme

b) rop-reduced osmotic pressure

c) Hind III, EcoRI – selectable markers

d) ampR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes


18. A mixture containing DNA fragments a,b,c,d with molecular weights of a+b=c, a>b and d>c, was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The position of these fragmets from cathode to anode sides of the gel would be

a) b,a,c,d

b) a,b,c,d

c) c,b,a,d

d) b,a,d,c


19. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridisation technique does not use

a) Electrophoresis

b) Blotting

c) Autoradiography

d) PCR


20. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non- recombinant bacteria because of

a) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta galactosidase

b) Insertionalinactivationofa-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

c) Insertional inactivation of b-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria

d) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria


21. Which one of the following palindromic base sequence in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

a) 5’CGTTCG3’ 3’ATCGTA 5’

b) 5’ GATATG 3’ 3’ CTACTA 5’

c) 5’ GAATTC 3’ 3’ CTTAAG 5’

d) 5’ CACGTA 3’ 3’ CTCAGT 5’


22. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to

a) Boll worms

b) Nematodes

c) White rusts

d) Bacterial blights


23. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are

a) Long fibre and resistant to aphids

b) Medium yield, long fibre and resistant to beetle pests

c) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests

d) High yield and resistant to boll worms


24. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice

a) Does not require chemical fertilisers and growth hormones

b) Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A

c) Is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy

d) Gives high yield but no characteristic aroma


25. Consumption of which one of the following foods prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin A deficiency?

a) Flavr Savr

b) Canola

c) Golden rice

d) Bt brinjal


26. A protoplast is a cell

a) undergoing division

b) without cell wall

c) without plasma membrane

d) without nucleus.


27. A technique of micropropagation is

a) Protoplast fusion

b) embryo rescue

c) somatic hybridization

d) somatic embryogenesis


28. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?

a) Apical meristem only

b) Palisade parenchyma

c) Both apical and axillary meristems

d) Epidermis only.


29. Cellular totipotency was demonstrated by

a) Theodore Schwann

b) A.V. Leeuwenhoek

c) F.C. Steward

d) Robert Hooke


30. Tissue culture technique can produce infinite number of new plants from a small parental tissue. The economic importance of the technique is raising.

a) genetically uniform population identical to the original parent.

b) homozygous diploid plants

c) new species

d) variants through picking up somaclonal variations


31. Which of the following statements is not true about somatic embryogenesis?

a) The pattern of development of a somatic embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo.

b) Somatic embryos can develop from microspores.

c) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin such as 2, 4-D.

d) A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell.


32. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

a) Somatic - Fusion of two diverse hybridization cells

b) Vector DNA - Site for tRNA synthesis - in vitro

c) Micropropagation  production of plants in large numbers

d) Callus - Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture.


33. Polyethylene glycol method is used for

a) biodiesel production

b) seedless fruit production

c) energy production from sewage

d) gene transfer without a vector.


34. Somaclones are obtained by

a) Plant breeding

b) Irradiation

c) genetic engineering

d) tissue culture.


35. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called

a) Plantlet culture

b) Organ culture

c) Micropropagation

d) Macropropagation


36. Coconut milk is used in tissue culture in which present

a) cytokinin

b) auxin

c) gibberellins

d) ethylene.


37. Haploid plants can be obtained by culturing.

a) pollen grains

b) root tips

c) young leaves

d) endosperm.


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